Originally Posted by mpg9999

So whats with the big rear sway bar you had been developing? I would think you'd be going with a bigger front, not rear now.

How do I actually calculate this stuff? I started messing around with some equations but I'm not sure if what I've come up with means anything. I figured tune for 60 mph, which is 88 feet/sec. Wheel base is 95.7 inches, so at 60 mph the time difference between the front and rear hitting a bump is .090625 seconds. On a tech paper on optimumg, it said a typical ride frequency is 1.5 to 2.0 hertz on a race car. I used 1.5 hertz for the front, then used the mathematical description of a wave (Acos2pi ((x/lamdba)(t/T)) ) to calculate the time the wave takes to cross the x axis (1/2 cycle). From what I can tell it doesnt matter what you use for wavelength or amplitude (because x is going to be half of the wavelength so you always get .5 for x/wavelength). I came up with 1/3 of a second for t. 1/3 minus the .090625 I found earlier equals .2427 seconds. Thats the time you need the rear to cross the x axis, so multiply that by two gives you the period, and one over that is the frequency, which I get to be 2.06. So, with a 1.5 hertz front ride frequency I get a 2.06 rear. Am I even close to being right on any of this?